When did the Hebrews or Israelites become known as Jews?
According to the Bible, Abraham left polytheism to follow the God who made the universe. Abraham lived about 2,000 BC and he and his descendants were known as Hebrews (Gen. 14:13). In fact the Pentateuch was written by Moses in the Hebrew language. Isaac was Abraham’s son and Jacob his grandson. Jacob’s name was changed to Israel (Gen. 32:28; 46:1). Since this time Israel’s descendants were known as the children of Israel or Israel or Israelites. Israel’s family moved to Egypt where his son Joseph was second in command to the Pharaoh. In Egypt the Israelites grew to 2 million people when they subsequently migrated to Canaan in the Middle East under the leadership of Moses and Joshua.
After the Israelites invaded Canaan, they were ruled by the kings Saul, David and Solomon. King David lived about 1,000 BC. After this, the kingdom was divided into two, with 10 tribes in the northern kingdom of Israel and two in the southern kingdom of Judah (1 Kings 12; 2 Chronicles 10). Samaria was the capital of Israel and Jerusalem the capital of Judah.
The Hebrew noun “Yehudi” (“Jew” in English; Strongs #3064) is derived from the name Judah, who was one of Jacob’s twelve sons. See Appendix A for a summary of how this word was spoken in various languages. Judah was the ancestor of one of the tribes of Israel, which was named after him. “Yehudi” occurs 76 times in the following books of the Old Testament:
– 11 times in Jeremiah (written about 600BC), where it describes Judeans,
– Twice in 2 Kings (written about 550BC), where it describes Judeans who lived about 750BC and 590BC,
– Once in Zechariah (written about 520BC), where it may describe both Judeans and Israelites,
– 52 times in Esther (written about 460BC), where it describes those dispersed after the Babylonian invasions and living in the Persian kingdom, including Mordecai a Benjaminite (Est. 2:5; 5:13), and
– 10 times in Nehemiah (written about 430BC), where it describes exiles who returned to Jerusalem.
A related word “Yehudain” (Strongs #3062) only occurs in the books of Daniel and Ezra (written about 530BC and 440BC respectively). So the most robust answer to our question, “When did the Hebrews or Israelites become known as Jews?” is from about 600BC.
Originally, the word referred to members of the tribe of Judah, but later it described anyone from the kingdom of Judah. This would include those from the northern kingdom of Israel who moved to Judah, including Mordecai’s ancestors. Also, as those who returned after the exile settled in Judea, they were called Jews regardless of their ancestoral tribe. In the New Testament, the words, “Hebrews”, “Israelites”, and “Jews” are used interchangeably to describe the descendants of Jacob (Jn. 4:9; 2 Cor. 11:22). And this is the case today – the words “Hebrews”, “Israelites”, and “Jews” are used as synonyms (see Appendix B).
In 722 BC, Samaria was conquered by the Assyrians and the Israelites were dispersed into surrounding nations (2 Ki. 17). As they assimilated and now have no national identity, they are known as the “Ten Lost Tribes of Israel”. However, they weren’t all lost because some remained in Israel and some moved to Judah (2 Chron. 15:9; 35:18).
In 605 BC and 598 BC, King Nebuchadnezzar of Babylonia invaded Judah and in 586 B.C. Jerusalem was destroyed. Many of the Jews were taken to exile in Babylon. When the Persians conquered Babylon in 538 BC, the Persian King Cyrus permitted the Jews to return to their homelands and many returned to Judah. After the Babylonian exile, “Jew” replaced “Israelite” as the most widely-used term for these survivers. This was because, by that time, virtually all Israelites were descendants of the kingdom of Judah. Also, the Jewish religion was known as Judaism.
After Jerusalem was rebuilt, Judea was ruled by the Greeks, Egyptians, Syrians and Romans. Although the terms “Hebrew” and “Israelite” continued in use into the New Testament period (Rom. 9:4; 2 Cor. 11:22; Phil. 3:5), by then the term “Jew” was more commonly used. At His death, the Romans referred to Jesus as the “king of the Jews” (Mt. 27:37).
In 70 AD, the Romans destroyed Jerusalem (this didn’t destroy all the Jews as many were living in other countries) and in 134 AD the Romans attacked again and the Jews were killed, enslaved and dispersed to surrounding countries including Europe and North Africa. Since this time, Judea has been ruled by the Byzantine Empire, the Islamic Empire, the Crusaders, the Mamluk Empire, the Ottoman Empire, and the British Empire. The Jews were persecuted and driven out of many regions culminating in the holocaust. Despite these difficulties, the Jews maintained their identity, even in foreign lands. The need to find a homeland for Jewish refugees led to the establishment of the state of Israel in 1948.
How amazing – the Jews survived 1,900 years of exile! No other people has ever gone into exile and survived this long and returned to re-establish a national homeland. And the Jews went into exile twice! They also survived the persecutions of the the Hamans and Hitlers of this world (Est. 3:1-15). Surely this is evidence of the Bible’s inspiration, and of the existence of the God who promised to preserve the Jews, return them to their homeland, and bring them to a time of great national blessing in the last days.
In common speech, the word “Jew” is now used to refer to all of the descendants of Jacob and those who adhere to Judaism.
Appendix A: Historical summary of usage of the word “Jew”.
The Hebew word translated “Jew” in the Bible originally meant the tribe of Judah and the kingdom of Judah. Judah’s father Israel died in about 1680BC. So the name “Judah” originated in the 17th century BC. With the destruction of the northern kingdom of Israel in 722 BC, the kingdom of Judah became the sole Jewish state and the name was applied to all Israelites. The Hebrew name for “Judean” (or “Jew”) appears in the Bible from about 600BC. This name was also applied to those who were dispersed in 586 BC. After the Israelite exiles returned to Palestine, the region began to be known as “Judea”. And the dispersed Israelites began to be known as “Judean”. Here’s the word in various languages:
– Yehudi – Hebrew
– Yehudai – Aramaic
– Ioudaios – Greek
– Iūdaeus – Latin
– Judeu, then Juiu, then Juif – French
– Gyv, then Ive, Iewe, Iew – Old English
– Jew – English (1775)
These are the same word as it is spoken in various languages.
So, the Hebrew word translated “Jew” in the Bible is used for all the descendants of Jacob (or Israel). Today, depending on context, it can also mean one who follows the Jewish religion.
Appendix B: Biblical description of the descendants of Abraham/Jacob
Hebrews: Abraham is called a Hebrew (Gen. 14:1). This is the first use of the term. Joseph is also called a Hebrew (Gen. 39:14, 17; 41:12). The people whom God (through Moses) rescued from Egypt were called ‘Hebrews’. The word ‘Hebrew’ may be derived from the name of one of Abraham’s ancestors, the patriarch Eber (Gen. 10:21–25, 11:14–17).
Israelites: means a descendant of Jacob, who in later life was given the name ‘Israel’ by God (Gen. 32:28).
Jews: this word derives from Judah (Hebrew Yehudah), one of Jacob’s 12 sons, and the one who was the ancestor of Jesus Christ (Mt. 1:3, Lk. 3:33). Thus Jesus is Jewish, and the Hebrew version of His name is Yeshua Hamashiach = Jesus the Messiah. However the term ‘Jew’ became used for all descendants of Israel. So the term ‘Jew’ was used interchangeably with ‘Hebrew’ and ‘Israelite’. Thus a Jew is biblically defined as a descendant of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
Also note that in the Bible, Jewishness was determined through the father’s line, as is clear from the genealogies.
Acknowledgement
Appendix B was sourced from Sarfati “A brief history of the Jews”.
Written January 2013; Revised January 2019
George's Journal 
Many questions were answered ..thank you
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October 3, 2013 at 7:09 am
ACCORDING TO MY RESEARCH THE NAME JEWS WERE USED FROM 1800’S
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March 24, 2018 at 10:39 pm
Thanks for the comment John.
As mentioned in the third and fourth paragraph of my post above these comments, the oldest record in the Bible of the Hebrew word for “Jew” (Strongs #3064) occurs in the book of Jeremiah which was written about 600BC. During this time Judah was invaded by the Babylonians and was a vassal (a person or nation in a subordinate position to a superior person or nation) of King Nebuchadnezzar. The word Jew seems to be used frequently after the exile – see the books of Esther (written about 460BC) and Nehemiah (written about 430BC).
So, via language translation, it’s usage can be traced further back than the 1800s.
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December 27, 2018 at 2:41 pm
But the root of the word is from 3rd and 4th centuries. The word Jew is a modernization of Jewish.
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November 29, 2022 at 5:20 am
Jebus was the name for Jerusalem so in reality the inhabitants were called Jebusites so they became to be known as Jews in the English derived
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August 20, 2014 at 1:23 pm
Thanks Ruben. Could you supply a reference for the claim that the word “Jew” was derived from the word “Jebusite” as I am unable to find one?
Jebus was the name for Jerusalem at the time of Israel’s conquest of Canaan (Jud. 19:10-11; 1 Chron.11:4). It’s Canaanite inhabitants were called Jebusites (Strongs #2983). The Israelites were unable to defeat the Jebusites until the time of David (Josh. 15:63; Jud. 1:21). Once Jerusalem became an Israelite city, the surviving Jebusites were forced by Solomon to become slaves (1 Ki. 9:20-21).
All the occurrences of the words “Jew” or “Jews” in the Old Testament of the NIV Bible seem to be associated with the word “Judah”, and not with the word “Jebusite”. In the Hebrew language they are associated with Strongs #3063 (or #3061, #3062, #3064, #3065, and #3066), and not with Strongs #2983.
The first individual to be called a Jew (Yehudi) in the Scriptures was Mordecai (Est. 2:5). It seems more likely that he was named after his ancestors (the Judeans who lived in Judah before the exile), not the previous inhabitants of Jerusalem who became slaves.
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September 14, 2014 at 6:31 am
Begging your pardon… The first person referred to as a Jew in scripture was a woman in Genesis 26:34. Yes I realize I am being symantical, but technically the name Judith in Hebrew is Y’hudit “Jewess” … And yes of course there are some rather interesting commentaries about this. One day s that Esau was being rebellious and sarcastic. His family told him not to marry a Canaanite, but he did anyway, but he married one who’s name meant “Jewess”. …. I’ll leave you to ponder anything you may find interesting about this… Shalom
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August 15, 2015 at 8:05 am
Thanks for the comment William. Yes the name recorded by Moses for one of Esau’s Hittite wives in Genesis 26:34 is “Yehudith” (Strongs #3067, a feminine proper name). This is the only instance of this Hebrew word in Scripture. Apparently it originates from “Yehudi” (#3064, a masculine noun), which means a descendant of Judah (NAS Exhaustive Concordance). Presumably, the woman was the descendant of a man named Judah. But this would be a different person to the Judah who was Esau’s nephew. However, Brown-Driver-Higgs Hebrew Lexicon states that the “relation to foregoing names (is) obscure”.
The name “Judith” is Semitic (derived from Shem), but the Hittite language wasn’t Semitic (being derived from Ham). Its usage in Genesis 26:34 could be because it was borrowed into the Hittite language or was her name when it was translated into Hebrew.
I don’t think the term “Jewess” is appropriate in the context of Genesis 26 (about 2,000 BC) because the word “Yehudi” (which is usually translated “Jew”) is only used in Scripture from 2 Kings 16 (written about 550BC describing events in about 750 BC). So there is a gap of at least 1,250 years in the usages of these two words (or a gap of at least 700 years after the time of Moses, who wrote Genesis). Also, as “Jew” is only used in Scripture for descendants of the Judah who was Esau’s nephew, I don’t think it is appropriate to use the term “Jewess” for the descendant of another man named “Judah”.
So as Judith was a Hittite and not a Hebrew and Hebrew’s weren’t known as Jew’s until many years later, it’s not appropriate to call her a Jewess. She wasn’t Jewish by race or by religion.
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August 16, 2015 at 3:05 am
mordecai is from benjamin not judah, look at the entire verse.
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September 2, 2015 at 6:35 pm
Thanks for the comment Sarah.
Yes, Mordecai was from the tribe of Benjamin, not the tribe of Judah (Est. 2:5). The tribe of Benjamin was a part of the northern kingdom of Israel, which was conquered by the Assyrians in 722BC. At that time, many from the northern kingdom moved south to the kingdom of Judah. King Hezekiah built a wall around the western hill of Jerusalem (2 Chron. 32:5) to house the Hebrew refugees. The city expanded to the west, quadrupling in size. As the tribe of Benjamin lived near Jerusalem, Mordecai’s ancestors probably moved to the southern kingdom at this time. This means they lived in the kingdom of Judah. Then when Jerusalem was conquered by the Babylonians in 586BC, Mordecai’s family were probably deported to Babylon. That is why Mordecai was living in Susa in 460BC.
As mentioned above, the word “Jew” described anyone from the kingdom of Judah. So according to this definition Mordecai was a Jew even though he was descended from the tribe of Benjamin.
Also, as those who returned after the exile settled in Judea, they were called Jews regardless of their ancestoral tribe.
I have edited the blog to clarify this and give more information on the occurrence of the word “Yehudi” in the Old Testament.
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September 2, 2015 at 10:52 pm
It would be good if you read the curses that we find in Deut: 28 to identify who the Israelite’s are. There is only one group of people that these curses fit, only one heritage. If you look humbly with an open mind you will definitely question if this fits the people who call themselves Jews today.
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October 3, 2014 at 10:14 am
Thanks for the comment.
In Deuteronomy God renews His covenant with Israel that was originally given at Mt Sinai. It is in the form of an ancient Suzerain-Vassal treaty.
The punishments listed in Ch. 28 for disobedience include: depleted crops and herds, infertility, disease, drought, defeat in battle, mental illness, powerlessness, captivity in a foreign land, agricultural pests, poverty, slavery, cannibalism during a siege, disasters, dispersion to foreign nations, and fear of persecution. This warning was given to the Israelites as they were about to possess the land of Canaan.
The Bible records the fulfillment of these punishments between the 6th to 8th century BC, including the fall of Samaria (722 BC), the fall of Jerusalem (586 BC), and the dispersion of the people of the kingdom of Israel and Judah into exile. Some exiles of the kingdom of Judah returned to Palestine, but they were dispersed again in AD 70.
As Jews kept very reliable records, most claiming Jewish ethnicity have a reliable basis for their claims.
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October 6, 2014 at 8:07 pm
When the house of Judah was taken captive and were taken north to Babylon where the house of Israel was already located, After seventy years the time of punishment for the house of Judah the two houses took counsel among themselves and decided to go north through the mountains to Russia. Only 43 thousand of the house of Judah returned to build the new temple, The rest of the two family traveled north for a year and half and became the Caucasians because of the mountains, The travel west to the coast lines and the islands of the sea, The ruling family settled in Great Britain where the crowning stone had come by ship by way of the great sea in the hands of Jeremiah. All the kings of Israel have been crowned on that stone to this present day, Later one family of the house of Israel said this land is to small give us a place where we can grow and it became America,
In Ireland the Galic language is Hebrew with Roman letters and Roman sounds but they retain the Hebrew syntax of language,
The people of God are those that are hated by the rest of the world because of the name of God and his righteousness
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August 27, 2015 at 1:08 pm
Thanks for your comment Gerald. I offer the following response to your theory that the Britons and Americans descended from ancient Israelite tribes.
Geneticists analyze unique genetic markers that are passed down through the generations, allowing an individual’s ancestry to be determined. When this data is used to trace the lineages of human populations it shows that the world’s Jewish communities closely resemble Palestinians, Syrians and Lebanese, suggesting that all are descended from a common ancestral population that inhabited the Middle East some four thousand years ago. So most modern Jews share origins with other peoples of the Middle East and are sharply genetically divergent from Britons and other Europeans. The same divergence would apply to Jews of the ancient kingdoms of Israel and Judah. So modern genetic science shows that Britons and Americans cannot be descended from Israelite tribes.
The source of the story that Jeremiah traveled to Ireland seems to be a 19th century Freemason book of fiction. But Irish annals written by Catholic monks or priests, in the 1500s and 1600s don’t mention this story. So there seems to be no historical basis for this legend promoted by the British-Israelites.
Also, according to Wikipedia, Celtic, the ancestor of the Gaelic languages, is a branch of the greater Indo-European language family. It’s not Hebrew with Roman letters. On the other hand, Hebrew belongs to the Canaanite subgroup of the Semitic branch of the Afro-Asiatic language family. So, Hebrew and Irish are not related.
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September 1, 2015 at 1:28 pm
Reply to comment by “Seeking Truth” (3 October 2015):
Who said the curses came upon the Jewish people? They did not, God always helped them even when he was mad at them. Who do you think received the curses, that’s so obvious to you? I think I know who you think it is
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December 30, 2015 at 8:44 pm
Thanks for the comment on 30 December 2015 Mara.
In Deuteronomy God renews His covenant with Israel that was originally given at Mt Sinai. It is in the form of an ancient Suzerain-Vassal treaty.
The punishments listed in Ch. 28 for disobedience include: depleted crops and herds, infertility, disease, drought, defeat in battle, mental illness, powerlessness, captivity in a foreign land, agricultural pests, poverty, slavery, cannibalism during a siege, disasters, dispersion to foreign nations, and fear of persecution. This warning was given to the Israelites as they were about to possess the land of Canaan.
The Bible records the fulfillment of these punishments between the 6th to 8th century BC, including the fall of Samaria (722 BC), the fall of Jerusalem (586 BC), and the dispersion of the people of the kingdom of Israel and Judah into exile. Some exiles of the kingdom of Judah returned to Palestine, but they were dispersed again in AD 70.
Although you don’t believe that these curses came upon the Jewish people, history shows otherwise. Persecution of the Jews even continued into the 20th century.
Also, as Jews kept very reliable records, most claiming Jewish ethnicity have a reliable basis for their claims.
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January 14, 2019 at 11:51 am
Reply to Seeking Truth: Unfathomably based. I would like to know more about this, sir.
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August 4, 2023 at 6:28 pm
Remember Abraham had seven sons and God only recognized the one of the wife Sarah, all others were rejected to wait the wrath of God, From Isaac we get the twelve tribes of Jacob whose name was changed to Israel, The twelve were divided into two houses. and none of these were Jews,
In the New Testament the Jews were rejected as hypocrites because they claimed to be of the righteous seed of Abraham, and it was said that of these stones God is able to raise up children to Abraham
The Jews are descendants of Abraham and Hagar who were rejected because she was a Canaanite woman, The Jews are of Abraham but not of Isaac, They were rejected time after time because of their false claim to be the children of Abraham, The Jews did not receive the birthright promises through Isaac because Hagar was rejected, The Jews are known as gentile Jews because God said to Abraham I will make you the father of a throng of gentile (guim) which includes the gentile Jews who are hypocrites according to the Son of God in the New Testament,
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August 27, 2015 at 12:53 pm
Thanks for your comment Gerald. I found it very difficult to follow your reasoning, but offer the following comments.
You say that none of the descendants of Jacob (Israel) were Jews, but this contradicts that fact that the word “Jew” comes from the name Judah (one of Jacob’s sons).
You also say that “the Jews are descendants of Abraham and Hagar”. But as the word “Jew” comes from the name Judah (a son of Sarah) and not from Ishmael (a son of Hagar), it is more likely to apply to some descendants of Sarah than to some descendants of Hagar.
The line of promise was from Abraham through Isaac, not through Ishmael. The promise of God was, “It is through Isaac that your offspring will be reckoned” (Gen. 21:12; Rom. 9:7; Heb. 11:18). It is interesting to note that the OT prophets often illustrated God as the husband of Israel (Is. 54:5-8; 62:5 Jer. 2:2; 3:14; Ezek. 16:32; Hos. 2:16, 19-20; 3:1). In this case the nation of Israel are descendants of Isaac and not Ishmael.
The Bible says that Jesus was a Jew who was a descendant of Isaac (Lk. 3:33; 23:38). His disciples and the apostle Paul were also Jews.
Also, the term “Gentile Jews” doesn’t seem to make sense to me as it is made up of two contradictory words.
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September 1, 2015 at 1:27 pm
Thanks for writing an easy to follow snapshot of the history and origins of how the Jews got to be who, what, and where they are today.
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July 25, 2023 at 10:33 am
Reply to comment by “Gerald R. Collins” (27 August 2015, 12:53pm):
Abraham had one child (Isaac) by Sarah, and one (Ishmael ) by the bondwoman, he did not have seven..and only one was really recognized as his son (Genesis 22:2, Galatians 4:22)
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December 30, 2015 at 8:58 pm
Thanks for the comment Mara.
The Bible mentions that Abraham also had six sons with a concubine named Keturah (Gen. 25:1-4; 1 Chron. 1:32-33). Although Abraham provided for these sons during his lifetime, they didn’t inherit anything when he died; everything went to Isaac (Gen. 25:5-6). So it seems that Abraham had at least eight sons.
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January 1, 2016 at 11:34 am
— Genesis 25:1-2 “Abraham took another wife, whose name was Keturah. She bore him Zimran, Jokshan, Medan, Midian, Ishbak, and Shuah.” 8 total sons mentioned
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April 25, 2020 at 11:11 pm
FALSE. The info is false. The true Hebrew Israelites are your so called African Americans, Haitians, Dominicans, Jamaicans, Native American Indians (who are “black”) Cubans, Puerto Ricans, Colombians, Australian Aborigines, Hawiians, Mexicans, etc.
NOT every Israelite is a “jew”. One would have to be from the seed of Judah to be a “Jew”.
The first mention of Jew doesnt come until 2 Kings 16………..LIARS. IT Does NOT appear in the Torah. Let’s remember, you don’t “read” the Tanakh.
“The Jews were persecuted and driven out of many regions culminating in the holocaust. Despite these difficulties, the Jews maintained their identity, even in foreign lands. The need to find a homeland for Jewish refugees led to the establishment of the state of Israel in 1948.” FALSE. Jeremiah 17:4 says “And thou, even thyself, shalt discontinue from thine heritage that I gave thee; and I will cause thee to serve thine enemies in the land which thou knowest not: for ye have kindled a fire in mine anger, which shall burn for ever. So the question being is how were you able to maintain your identity??????? What you’re saying then is that the Tanakh is false???? When did you “serve” your enemies. The Hebrew word for serve is Abad which means become slaves or bondage. When were you edomites in slavery???? The real holocaust is the Atlantic Slave trade in which the House of Judah endured after fleeing into West Africa after the filthy romans committed their atrocities against Ehyeh aser Ehyeh’s Chosen People.
Yes, the Negro is of Judah, the Royal Tribe, The Tribe of the Kings. The King of kings, Yeshua haMasiach or Jesus the Christ, sprang from Judah. Yes, Jesus the Christ is “black” and has Negro features. You don’t acknowledge him because Esau (Edom or “white” people) are the Chief enemies of the Isrealites.
Job 30:30 My skin is black upon me, and my bones are burned with heat.
Song of Solomon 1:5 & 6 I am black, but comely, O ye daughters of Jerusalem, as the tents of Kedar, as the curtains of Solomon. Son 1:6 Look not upon me, because I am black, because the sun hath looked upon me:
Jeremiah 14:2 Judah mourneth, and the gates thereof languish; they are black unto the ground; and the cry of Jerusalem is gone up.
Lamentations 4:8 Their visage is blacker than a coal; they are not known in the streets:
Lamentations 5:10 Our skin was black like an oven because of the terrible famine
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September 19, 2015 at 7:28 am
Thanks for the comment Remington.
According to the book of Esther, Mordecai was called a Jew even though he was descended from the tribe of Benjamin and not the tribe of Judah (Est. 2:5).
With regard to Jeremiah 17:4 “Through your own fault you will lose the inheritance I gave you. I will enslave you to your enemies in a land you do not know, for you have kindled my anger, and it will burn forever”. This message was given to the inhabitants of Judah around 600BC. Their “own fault” was gross idolatry and their “inheritance” was the land of Canaan (Jer.16:18). As God’s punishment was slavery in the land of Babylon, the “land you do not know” was Babylon. You asked how could they maintain their identity? Although Jeremiah predicted the Jewish exile, he also predicted their restoration (Jer. 3:15-18; 16:14-15; 23:3-8; 24:4-8; 29:10-14; 30:1-31:40; 32:36-33:26). A remnant will return to Jerusalem and live in peace and prosperity (Zech. 8:1-17).
As mentioned in the comments above, as those who returned after the exile settled in Judea, they were called Jews regardless of their ancestoral tribe. So after the exile, the words “Jew” and “Israelite” were synonyms.
I won’t comment here on the skin color of the Hebrews/Israelites/Jews as this topic is outside the scope of this post.
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September 28, 2015 at 8:02 am
What I don’t understand is that they “the so called jews” don’t read their Torah! Read Deut 28. None of the curses apply to the “jews” sitting over in modern day Israel. They only apply to the “so called negros”. SMH!!!
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October 6, 2015 at 11:05 am
Also, If we know the Egyptians to be black, please explain to me how Moses was able be pass for an Egyptian if he (Moses) was a white Amalakite edomite???? Remember, Pharaoh was murdering the Hebrew Israelite boys at the time so I think Pharaoh would have noticed if Moses was a white person.
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September 19, 2015 at 7:40 am
Thanks for the comment Remington.
I won’t comment here on the skin color of the Hebrews/Israelites/Jews as this topic is outside the scope of this post.
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September 28, 2015 at 5:50 pm
Can you provide a shorter and more concrete answer than that? This was a very intelligent answer, but you explained why the Israelites became known as the Jews, not when.
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September 24, 2015 at 11:44 am
Thanks for the comment.
As mentioned in the third and fourth paragraph of my post above these comments, the oldest record in the Bible of the Hebrew word for “Jew” (via language translation) occurs in the book of Jeremiah which was written about 600BC. During this time Judah was invaded by the Babylonians and was a vassal (a person or nation in a subordinate position to a superior person or nation) of King Nebuchadnezzar. The word Jew (via language translation) seems to be used frequently after the exile – see the books of Esther (written about 460BC) and Nehemiah (written about 430BC).
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September 28, 2015 at 6:26 am
Thank you for a very helpful article George – was trying to find out when ‘Jew’ was first used. Saddened by the number of people who appear to believe in Replacement theology!
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October 19, 2015 at 9:45 pm
Thanks for the comment Penny.
Replacement theology teaches that the church has replaced Israel in God’s plan and that the many promises made to Israel in the Bible are fulfilled in the Christian church, not in Israel. The prophecies in Scripture concerning the blessing and restoration of Israel to the Promised Land are spiritualized into promises of God’s blessing for the church. Major problems exist with this view, such as the continuing existence of the Jewish people throughout the centuries and especially with the revival of the modern state of Israel. If Israel has been condemned by God and there is no future for the Jewish nation, how do we explain the supernatural survival of the Jewish people over the past 2,000 years despite the many attempts to destroy them? How do we explain why and how Israel reappeared as a nation in the 20th century after not existing for 1,900 years?
We are taught from Scripture that the church is an entirely new creation that came into being on the day of Pentecost and will continue until it is taken to heaven at the rapture (Eph. 1:9–11; 1 Th. 4:13–17). The church has no relationship to the curses and blessings for Israel. The covenants, promises, and warnings of the Mosaic Covenant were valid only for Israel. Israel has been temporarily set aside in God’s program during these past 2,000 years of dispersion (see Romans 11).
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January 14, 2019 at 3:07 pm
Mr. Hawke, can you please provide a solid Scripture that says Israel would be reestablished as a state? It has always been a nation. All Scripture that I’ve read concerning the restoration of Israel points to the millennium and Christ’s return.
Another question I have is as there are so many prophecies yet to be fulfilled and we know that many prophecies have dual appointments; when was the prophecy in Ezekiel 37:21 fulfilled? And say unto them, Thus switch the LORD GOD; I will take the children of Israel from among the heather, whither they be gone and will gather them in every side and bring them into their own land. 22 And I will make them one nation in the land upon the mountains of Israel and one king shall be king over them all; and they shall be no more two nations, neither shall they be divided into two kingdoms any more at all. Obadiah 11 – 14 fulfilled concerning Edom and the Edomites?
Who is Yeshua referring to in Revelation 2:9 “I know thy works, and tribulation, and poverty, (but thou art rich) and I know the blasphemy of them which say they are Jews and are not, but are the synagogue of Satan.”
And again in Revelation 3:9 “Behold, I will make them if the synagogue of Satan, which say they are Jews and are not, but do lie; behold, I will make them to come and worship before thy feet and know that I have lived thee.
For decades, there has only been one people who have maintained themselves to be “Jews.” That being the case who is He referring to in these passages?
I’ve read that you don’t speak on skin color. However skin color is important. See Exodus 4:6 “And the LORD said furthermore unto him, Put. I’ve thine hand into the bosom. And he put his hand into his bosom: and when he took it out, behind, his hand was leprous (white) as snow. See also Leviticus 14 which gives the Law if cleansing leper’s as well as the signs of leprosy. Everyone with leprosy turned white. If you’re already white as most of the worlds “Jews” are today, how then can you turn white with leprosy?
My husband and I had the privilege of visiting Israel last year and the people are white. The sun is so hot there, which is conducive to a nice brown/olive tan. However, Israel is one of the states in the world that leads in skin cancer. Why is that? I also did missions in Kenya and had the privilege to visit the equator. The people there are “BLACK,” and I do mean black, but there were no reports of skin cancer.
Also, I recently noticed on an medical form that the Jews of today have a medical condition that is privy to them only. With all due respect, what’s that about? As there are so many curses and diseases mentioned in Deuteronomy 28, why is there just one disease for you today? Also what happened to the other 11 tribes?
I hope that I’ve not offended you or anyone reading this. I know that emails and text messages can be mistaken and offensive depending on the frame of mind of the reader. That’s not my intention. I just have so many questions.
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August 21, 2019 at 4:43 am
I am under the understanding, a “Jew” is not a “direct” descendant of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. So, how are “Jews” God’s chosen people. The direct descendants of the above three got that distinction. When God referred to his “Chosen,” Israel, rather than Jew are in all the verses.
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May 20, 2020 at 7:19 am
If I may say, which of the Bibles are you all referencing? The original Hebrew or the adulterated Greek and Latin so called Authorised versions?
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October 20, 2015 at 9:08 am
Thanks for the question Neri about the Old Testament Scripture. I use English versions that have been translated from the Masoretic Hebrew text. I also use Strong’s reference system when referring to particular Hebrew words. These don’t involve Greek or Latin influences.
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October 22, 2015 at 8:23 am
I agree, after years of reading King James, I was blessed to look into old Biblical Hebrew language and it opened the doors to truth. The King James translation, as with all English translations are a western way of thinking and I was shocked at the difference. Biblical Hebrew is eastern and the words truly are alive and active, all in motion, you have to think like a
Desert Bedouin peoples when translated.
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April 25, 2020 at 11:35 pm
The 10 tribes had no right to attach themselves with the 2 tribes of Judah, GOD kept a remnant from Judah, because the northern Hebrews began worshiping idols & such, GOD knows who inhabited Judah, & who descendanted from that tribe, other tribes had no right to attach themselves, & make with their own hands a state, GOD said he would do it, he didn’t say at the appointed time I will let you know when to make Israel a land/nation
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October 22, 2015 at 6:55 am
George, thank you for not getting into a race discussion you showed poise and tact. I am a black minister and what different does it make there is enough in Scripture for all who wants to be saved if they study it and apply it. Many think they know the truth it only causes confusion division. What does it matter if red white black or blue? There is only one way JOHN 3:16. HAVE A BLESSED DAY..
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November 28, 2015 at 3:41 am
As you say that “Jesus was a Jew” I have a couple points of contention, and questions. First, Jesus “wasn’t” anything…Jesus “IS”. Secondly from what I’ve read there is a great debate as to whether Mary was from the tribe of Judah, or Levi. In Luke 1:16, Elizabeth (who’s father was of the tribe of Levi) is referred to a “Mary’s cousin” and in Malachi (which is the LAST book of the prophets) 2:4 God continues his covenant with Levi:
“Then you will know that I have sent this commandment to you, that My covenant may continue with Levi,” says the LORD of hosts.
while the rest of the chapter is speaking of the curse of Judah:
10Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers? 11Judah hath dealt treacherously, and an abomination is committed in Israel and in Jerusalem; for Judah hath profaned the holiness of the LORD which he loved, and hath married the daughter of a strange god. 12The LORD will cut off the man that doeth this, the master and the scholar, out of the tabernacles of Jacob, and him that offereth an offering unto the LORD of hosts.
In Hebrews 5:9+10 the Benjamite (Romans 11:1) Paul writes:
9And having been made perfect, He became to all those who obey Him the source of eternal salvation, 10being designated by God as a high priest according to the order of Melchizedek.
But lets just say that Jesus was an Israelite, of the root of Jesse (Isaiah 11:1+10, Romans 15:12) and not quibble over semantics, my question is this:
Why does the entire chapter of Matthew 23 consist of Jesus cursing the Judaic religion?
Why does, in John 8:44, Jesus refer to the Jews as being “children of the Devil”?
Why does John the apostle write twice in the book of Revelations that these “so-called Jews” aren’t Jews at all…but are of the synagogue of Satan? (Revelation 2:9, 3:9)
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December 16, 2015 at 12:29 am
Thanks for your comment Tom.
My statement “The Bible says that Jesus was a Jew who was a descendant of Isaac” referred to the period when He lived on earth. It wasn’t saying anything about His resurrection life.
I assume you mean Luke 1:36, not Luke 1:16. Most modern translations refer to Elizabeth as Mary’s “relative” (ESV, HCSB, NET, NIV) when they translate the Greek adjective suggenes (Strong’s 4773). Luke also uses this word in lists with parents, siblings, neighbors, and friends (Lk 14:12; 21:16).
The Israelites from the various tribes regularly intermarried and the children of a marriage were counted to belong to the tribe their father came from. So Israelite tribal heritage was passed down through their fathers, not their mothers (Ruth 4:18-22). Thus, Elizabeth and Mary were both related (through their mothers or a mother and a father) and descendants of Aaron and David (through their fathers’ ancestry) respectively.
In Matthew 23 Jesus criticized the Jewish religious leaders for their hypocrisy. They were “full of hypocrisy and wickedness” (v.28). The noun translated “woe” ouai (Strongs #3759) is an expression of grief or denunciation. But it’s not a curse on the entire “Judaic religion”.
In John 8:44 Jesus calls those who were trying to kill Him, children of the devil. They were acting like the devil because of their murderous thoughts (about killing Jesus) and their lies (claimed to be godly and spiritual, while they were wicked). As “salvation is from the Jews” (Jn. 4:22), His words didn’t apply to the Jewish people as a whole.
The term “a synagogue of Satan” (Rev. 2:9; 3:9) is a metaphor applied to unbelieving Jews who were hostile to the early Christians. They were guilty of slander, persecution, and lying.
These three passages show the sad state of Judaism in the first century. What a contrast to Peter and Paul who recognized that Jesus Christ was the Jewish Messiah and followed Him in the early church. What about Christians today? Are we like the Jewish religious leaders or like Peter and Paul?
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December 18, 2015 at 3:12 pm
Hello, I am a Gentile saved by the grace of God through Jesus Christ, my Lord and Saviour. Amen. Of which I am very grateful and in reading the bible I have a deep love and new understand both for and of the Jews. My question is this, in reading the ending the last paragraph above, I see where the Jews will be called back to Jerusalem and be saved. Now, with not accepting Jesus Christ as their Lord and Saviour, like Jesus so adamantly taught when He was here. Amen. Will God allow the Jews to have Salvation, without the full acceptance of Jesus Christ? If so, I’m puzzled as to how the Jews have there sins remitted these days if they do not sacrifice and most don’t believe that Jesus is the Messiah? (This is a serious concern of mine…this is not to try and sway anyone to my beliefs of pick the Jews apart. I would deeply appreciate a firm response(s) to this comment, thank you.)
I know in two places where the bible says that the Jews will be saved? My concern is that as a disciple of Jesus Christ, Amen, do I need to be concerned with witnessing to the Jews that are local to me? (Again, replies will be very appreciated) It’s out of pure love and concern that we all do the will of the Father and accept Jesus Christ for the wonderful work that He did here, that I ask. Since it’s not know to me that I have any Jewish blood in my lineage, I will not say Shalom. But much love to each and every person who reads this. 🙂
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February 17, 2016 at 10:32 am
Thanks for the comment Steve.
You ask “Will God allow the Jews to have salvation, without the full acceptance of Jesus Christ?”. And, “how (do) the Jews have their sins remitted these days if they do not sacrifice and most don’t believe that Jesus is the Messiah?”. See my post on “Can a person go to heaven if they haven’t heard about Jesus before they die?“.
You also ask, “do I need to be concerned with witnessing to the Jews that are local to me?”. I think the answer is “Yes!”, because today Jews are saved in the same way as people of any other nationality. Also, the usual way to go to heaven is to respond to hearing about Jesus. That’s why it’s important to tell people about Jesus as much as possible and support others in this work.
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February 20, 2016 at 5:18 am
Read Williams comment below. It’s a part of the answer. “Jew” is synonymous with Canaanite rather than Israelite or Hebrew. Judah “left his brothers” . Then he married a Canaanite and had 3 sons with her. God killed 2 of them because they were evil. Shelah, the third Canaanite son, went on to father the Moabites. These “Jews” were always fighting the Israelites. After Judah’s Canaanite wife died, he had two (twin) sons with the Israelite Tamar. This is the PURE Israelite line. Jesus was a descendent from this pure Israelite line, the line without the Canaanite blood. Jesus was NEVER a Jew. He was and is a Judahite, an Israelite, a Semite but he was never a Canaanite! Noah said “Cursed be Canaan.”. Jews of today are either Canaanites or Japhethites (Ashkenazis) or converts to the religion, Judaism. They are a NOT the chosen Hebrews / Israelites that are God’s people. God’s chosen include ALL the tribes. Israel is all those who come in by the one and only door – Jesus.
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April 29, 2016 at 10:30 pm
Thanks for the comments Kate.
Some of your claims seem to contradict the Bible.
You say “Shelah … went on to father the Moabites”. But the Bible lists his descendants amongst the clans of Judah (Num. 26:20; 1 Chr. 4:21-23). Some of them resettled in Jerusalem after the exile (1 Chron. 9:5; Neh. 11:5). Here they are listed amongst the tribes of Israel. The Bible says that Moab, the son of Lot and his eldest daughter, was “the father of the Moabites (Gen. 19:37).
You say that the word “Jew is synonymous with Canaanite”. But there is a gap of over 700 years between the usage of these words in the Bible. The incidence of the word “Canaanites” in the Bible decreases dramatically after the first judge in Judges chapter 3 (at about 1380 BC). However, the word “Jew” (via language translation) is only used in the Bible from 600 BC (in the book of Jeremiah).
You say, that “Jesus was NEVER a Jew”. But the Samaritan woman called Jesus a Jew and Jesus agreed (Jn. 4:9, 22).
You say that Jesus was descended from a “pure Israelite line”. This isn’t true with regard to women as Rahab and Ruth are in Christ’s genealogy (Mt. 1:5). Rahab was a Canaanite and Ruth a Moabite. It may be true for men as Israelite tribal heritage was passed down through their fathers, not their mothers (Ruth 4:18-22).
Where is the evidence in the Bible of a “PURE Israelite line” “without Canaanite blood” within the tribe of Judah?
Where does this idea come from? It’s not supported by the Bible.
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May 3, 2016 at 10:40 pm
Jews have Canaanite blood and Noah said “Cursed be Canaan.”. Comes from Judah’s Canaanite wife through his youngest Canaanite son, Shelah. Judah’s pure Israelite line descended from Tamar. Jesus comes from the pure line. Jesus was a Judahite but never a Jew.
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April 29, 2016 at 10:41 pm
Thanks again for the comments Kate.
As this seems to be a summary of your previous comment, see my reply of May 3, 2016.
I can’t find any support in the Bible for this idea.
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May 3, 2016 at 10:46 pm
Jesus is was and always will be the son of God. He has no true earthly lineage. He is known as the Son of Man because He had to become human in order to die to pay the supreme price for our sins.
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May 29, 2016 at 10:26 pm
Thanks for the comment Anthony.
The Bible says that Mary was pregnant with Jesus (Mt. 1:18; Lk. 2:5) and that this pregnancy resulted in the birth of Jesus (Mt.1:25; 2:1; Lk. 2:7). This means that Mary was the mother of Jesus, which is an example of an earthy lineage. Therefore, it is incorrect to state that Jesus “has no true earthly lineage”.
Christ‘s genealogy is given in Luke 3:23-38. If Jesus is truly human, then He must be descended from Adam. This genealogy demonstrates that He was. It is widely believed that this gives the genealogy of Jesus through the line of Mary. Note that verse 23 does not say that Jesus was the son of Joseph, but “He was the son, so it was thought, of Joseph”. If this view is correct, then Heli (v. 23) was the father-in-law of Joseph and the father of Mary. So Jesus would be the grandson of Heli. Since Mary was still living at home (until Joseph “took Mary home as his wife”, Mt. 1:24) and Joseph was not the father of her child, there would be no one else to trace the child’s heritage through other than Mary and her father. This is exactly the implication of Luke 3:23: that Jesus was a descendant of Heli.
Scholars widely believe that this is the Lord’s genealogy through Mary for the following reasons:
1. The most obvious is that Joseph’s family line is traced in Matthew 1:2–16.
2. In the early chapters of Luke’s Gospel, Mary is more prominent than Joseph, whereas it is the reverse in Matthew.
3. Women’s names were not commonly used among the Jews as genealogical links. This would account for the omission of Mary’s name.
4. In the original language, the definite article (tou) in the genitive form (of the) appears before every name in the genealogy except one. That one name is Joseph. This singular exception strongly suggests that Joseph was included only because of his marriage to Mary.
Reference: MacDonald (1989) “Believer’s Bible Commentary”
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June 2, 2016 at 7:30 am
It is in fact a miracle that the Jews have survived for just over 2,000 years in the Diaspora, they have witnessed and lived through the end of
the Egyptian Civilization, the end of the Babylonians, the Assyrians, the ancient Persons, the ancient Greeks, and the Romans.
After 2,000 Years they have finally come home. This is why People are jealous and hate the Jewish people for not only not dying out but flourishing even after so many calamities Pogroms, Murder and Genocide culminating in the worst Genocide in the 20th Century the Holocaust of 6,000,000 Jews two thirds of European Jerry.
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June 30, 2016 at 4:10 am
It’s about being recognized, and not being denied and ostracized. That’s why race, ie; color matters as well. Get it?
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July 23, 2016 at 8:58 pm
This is a very informed and knowledgeable group of commenters I’ve seen in a long time. And George thank you for such diligence and steadfastness.
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July 23, 2016 at 9:04 pm
The best comments ever. Thanks everyone .
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September 26, 2016 at 9:55 pm
This was such a beautiful and inspiring article! Plus, it answered my question. Thank you and God bless Israel.
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April 17, 2017 at 12:16 pm
No where in Old Testament is the word Jew! It is a religion. where is your data on this that proves your information Scriptures are interpretative . The word Jew shows up in the new testament only and is used by the Romans to indensify Christ. No one speaks a language call Jew or Israelite they speak Hebrew this is the nationality how can a Jew be a Christian what would he be called? Just because the Jewish religion has taking the Hebrew nationality as hostage does not make a Hebrew a Jew !
.
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May 29, 2017 at 3:30 am
Thanks for the comment Tim.
Two Hebrew words are translated “Jew” in English Bibles. The noun “Yehudi” (Strongs #3064) occurs 76 times and the noun “Yehudain” (Strongs #3062) occurs 10 times. So the word “Jew” occurs 86 times (via language translation) in the Old Testament. As these instances describe people and not a religion, the words are used in the Old Testament to describe one’s nationality and not one’s religion. For example, “But in the seventh month, Ishmael the son of Nethaniah, son of Elishama, of the royal family, came with ten men and struck down Gedaliah and put him to death along with the Jews and the Chaldeans who were with him at Mizpah” (2 Ki. 25:25ESV). Here “Jews” means people of Judah (Judeans) and “Chaldeans” means Babylonians.
As many words have multiple meanings, today the word “Jew” can be used to describe either nationality or religion, with the particular meaning being given by the context.
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June 30, 2017 at 1:05 pm
You’re wrong about the Jew’s or Jewish. your DECEIVED. The words JEW or JEWISH DIDN’T EXIST UNTIL THE 18th century. Even the so call Jew’s don’t know their own history! Pass this false garbage.
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October 5, 2017 at 10:11 pm
Thanks for the comment Twohands.
This point has been made by several commentators.
My post looks at the history of the usage of words that are equivalent to the English word “Jew”. These words are translated as “Jew” in the English language. So the post is not restricted to the history of the English language. That is why I use the term “via language translation”, in some of my comments.
Two Hebrew words are translated “Jew” in English Bibles. The noun “Yehudi” (Strongs #3064) occurs 76 times and the noun “Yehudain” (Strongs #3062) occurs 10 times. As the Old Testament was written before 400BC, these Hebrew words were used at least 2,100 years before the 18th century AD.
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October 6, 2017 at 5:58 am
The bible that I have states that the god that Abraham consulted upon Mt Moriah was El Shaddai, who if he was the god of the universe must of not have cut the mustard to someone’s liking because Moses later swapped him out for YHWH. The latter, though, seems to have derived from the Semitic Shasu or Sosu, a tribe or people whose name must have been changed for the biblical record since they don’t seem to be mentioned. I liked your article but unfortunately it is far too simplistic and as such could be accused of being misleading, or worse of having an agenda which is far from being necessary.
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January 6, 2018 at 11:23 am
Thanks for the comment Deryck.
The only reference in the Bible to “El Shaddai” with reference to Abraham is, “When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD (Yahweh) appeared to him and said, ‘I am God Almighty (El-Shaddai); walk before me faithfully and be blameless. Then I will make my covenant between me and you and will greatly increase your numbers.’ Abram fell facedown, and God (Elohim)said to him …” (Gen. 17:1-3NIV). On this occasion Abram’s name was changed to Abraham (Gen. 17:5).
In this passage we see three Hebrew names are used for God: Yahweh (Strongs #3068), El-Shaddai (Strongs #7706) and Elohim (Strongs #430). It is clear that these all refer to the same God (the God of Israel) and not to different gods. This means that Abraham’s God was known as Yahweh, and as El-Shaddai and as Elohim. So Moses didn’t worship a different God to Abraham.
You say my post was simplistic and could be misleading. The question was “When did the Hebrews or Israelites become known as Jews?” My answer came from the Bible which includes God’s account of ancient history. It’s the most accurate version of ancient history of the Hebrews and Israelites. I prefer a simple answer to a complicated one as I’m writing for the general reader, and not for an academic journal.
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January 10, 2018 at 11:09 am
So to clarify, the Jews today are descendants of Abraham through Isaac Through the descendants of Jacob? U
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February 2, 2018 at 10:48 pm
Thanks for the comment Patrice.
As Jews kept very reliable records, most claiming Jewish ethnicity have a reliable basis for their claims.
Studies have shown that the Ashkenazi Jews really are the same people group as the other Jews. And the false ideas of Arthur Koestle and British Israelitism have been discredited.
So, all Jewish people groups today really are physical descendants of Abraham, not from Khazar converts; while the British people are not physical descendants of Abraham.
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January 13, 2019 at 8:52 pm
The NT talks about, and Jesus said those found in Christ are children of God. Abrahams everlasting promise from God is that the Christ would come out of his seed. Every promise is fulfilled in Jesus Christ.
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March 11, 2018 at 2:09 am
Thank you so much for the research you have done!
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March 22, 2018 at 9:00 pm
The Jews that were placed in the land of Israel in 1948 are not the biblical Jews, because the book of Deuteronomy says that the Jews would not be in their homeland. (Deut) 28:68! The transatlantic slave trade was there last captivity!!!
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May 4, 2018 at 8:32 am
Thanks for the comment Brenton.
The context of Deut. 28:68 is that the Israelites would be scattered amongst other nations (v.64-68). This prediction was made in about 1400BC and it was fulfilled in the Assyrian (722BC) and Babylonian (586BC) exiles.
But then God promised restoration for returning to the covenant:
“When all these blessings and curses I have set before you come on you and you take them to heart wherever the Lord your God disperses you among the nations, and when you and your children return to the Lord your God and obey him with all your heart and with all your soul according to everything I command you today, then the Lord your God will restore your fortunes and have compassion on you and gather you again from all the nations where he scattered you. Even if you have been banished to the most distant land under the heavens, from there the Lord your God will gather you and bring you back. He will bring you to the land that belonged to your ancestors, and you will take possession of it. He will make you more prosperous and numerous than your ancestors. The Lord your God will circumcise your hearts and the hearts of your descendants, so that you may love Him with all your heart and with all your soul, and live” (Dt. 30:1-6).
So the book of Deuteronomy says that the Jews will return to their homeland. And this message is repeated by the Old Testament prophets. There will be a physical restoration and a spiritual renewal. Of course, even if there has been a partial physical restoration, there has not yet been a spiritual renewal. In about 520BC (well after the 536BC return from the Babylonian captivity) Zechariah says that a return of the Jews to the land of Palestine was scheduled to be fulfilled in the future (Zech. 10:6-12). And the restoration of the nation of Israel was affirmed in the New Testament by Jesus (Acts 1:6-7), Peter (Acts 3:21), and James (Acts 15:13-18). James says that the restoration will occur in the millennial kingdom (after Christ returns). Paul says that God’s promise to the Jews is “irrevocable” (Rom. 11:29). This will be when many Jews will experience salvation (Zech. 13:8-9; Rom. 11:26-27). As this restoration has not yet been fulfilled, it still refers to a future time.
Furthermore, I am not aware of any link between “the transatlantic slave trade” and the Jews.
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December 27, 2018 at 3:11 pm
An blog that blows every point here ever made.
Jews were described as the people of Judea- hence- Judaism, that rejected everything ancient Hebrews stood for. They were pharisees and scribes, infiltrating the temples and doctrines after roman inclusion.
To call jesus a jew, would be calling him the very people he damned to hell.
Enjoy-
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May 18, 2018 at 1:51 am
Thanks for the comment Ben,
You say that Jesus wasn’t a Jew, but the gospels associate Jesus with “king of the Jews” 16 times! It seems as though your interpretation of the Bible doesn’t work with current translations.
The Biblicism Institute doubts that Ashkenazi Jews are real Jews, whereas studies have shown that the Ashkenazi Jews really are the same people group as the other Jews. The false ideas of Arthur Koestle have been discredited. So, all Jewish people groups today really are physical descendants of Abraham, not from Khazar converts.
According to Wikipedia:
– Genetic studies on Jews have found no substantive evidence of a Khazar origin among Ashkenazi Jews
– Dr. Harry Ostrer in his book “Legacy: A Genetic History of the Jewish People” (2012) , summarized his and other work in genetics of the last 20 years, and concluded that all major Jewish groups share a common Middle Eastern origin.
And according Robert Carter:
– There exists among modern Jews a core set of genes and haplogroups that trace directly back to the Middle East (J Creation 2018, 32, 1, 114-120).
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December 27, 2018 at 5:28 pm
@Ben Thank you for the post and the link. I know to look out for confirmation bias, but once the truth is shed, the mystery soon fades and everything that was murky clears. I appreciate your time in replying. It has been enlightening
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September 2, 2018 at 3:48 pm
Unfortunately this history is riddled with mistakes and generalisations which render it totally false, UnBiblical and historically inaccurate. I will provide all the accurate Biblical history here, starting with this:
Here is a link to a original 1611 FIRST DRAFT copy of the KJV Bible. The page I picked to highlight is the famous scripture verse that describes the sign hanging over Jesus head during His crucifixion, the message written on the sign says: “This is Jesus King of the Jews” but guess what? That is NOT what is written!!
When you click on this link to the original first draft copy of the 1611 KJV Bible it will open to the page I am referring too – just enlarged this page so you can read it and look at the right hand page at vs. 37 and tell me what you see written there!
It says:
“This is IVSES the King of the IEWES” !!
Why?
Because those are the ACTUAL words (translated from Aramaic into English) for Judeans / Judahites which were one of the Tribes of Hebrew Israelites!!!
Again, Jesus was certainly NOT “a Jew” He was a Hebrew Israelite.
Remember, it was only when the 2nd Edition of the KJV Bible was released did the word(s): Jew Jewish and Judaism were first put into the KJV BIBLE and replaced the TRUE and CORRECT words Judean and Judahite and Pharisaism (instead of “Judaism”).
Remember our Lord Jesus words in the book of Revelation 22:19 – “whosoever adds to or takes away from the WORDS of this book, God shall add to them the curses of this book or take away the blessings of this book.” (Paraphrased).
Below are links to historical and Biblical facts and information that support the position I am teaching here, starting with this:
Here’s the link to the original 1611 First Draft copy of KJV:
https://archive.org/stream/1611TheAuthorizedKingJamesBible/1611%20The%20Authorized%20King%20James%20Bible#page/n1253/mode/2up
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September 9, 2018 at 6:29 am
Thanks for the comment.
My post looks at the history of the usage of words that are equivalent to the English word “Jew”. These words are translated as “Jew” in the English language. So the post is not restricted to the history of the English language.
As mentioned in the third and fourth paragraph of my post above these comments, the oldest record in the Bible of the Hebrew word for “Jew” (Strongs #3064) occurs in the book of Jeremiah which was written about 600BC. During this time Judah was invaded by the Babylonians and was a vassal (a person or nation in a subordinate position to a superior person or nation) of King Nebuchadnezzar. The word Jew seems to be used frequently after the exile – see the books of Esther (written about 460BC) and Nehemiah (written about 430BC).
So, via language translation, it’s usage can be traced back to 2,200 years before the KJV Bible.
You say that Jesus wasn’t a Jew, but the gospels associate Jesus with “king of the Jews” 16 times! It seems as though your interpretation of the Bible doesn’t work with current translations.
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December 27, 2018 at 5:26 pm
Thank you! Just what I was
looking for; very thorough! 🙏🏼
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September 15, 2018 at 11:03 pm
I found this very interesting.
Today, Jews determine
Jewish linage ; through maternal blood.
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January 16, 2019 at 11:42 am
Thanks for the comment Faye.
Yes that’s different to the Bible where Jewish ascestory/descent is determined through the paternal line.
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January 16, 2019 at 12:58 pm
Since not all the world agrees with this biblical interpretation of scripture by the Judea-Christian church of Western Civilization. Time will verify whether or not this interpretation of the scriptures is true.
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February 6, 2019 at 4:07 am
I am a Descendent of DiN.
You know as Dan.
DiN, Yahweh is my DiN (Judge)
Is of Yashar’El. We are not of Yahuda.
Never have I ever been a Yahudite or shall I. I’m of Yashar’El. You know not what you speak of.
Say New York is American. That would be accurate. Yet to say all Americans are New Yorkers is false.
Yahudite is a citizen of Yahudah. Which I’ll point out does not exist and has not since 70ad. The other Yahudites would be those of whom converted to Yahudaism (Judaism).
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July 28, 2019 at 5:19 am
You article on the name ” Jew” is not completely accurate. You do great harm to the creditability of God’s Word. I do agree the word ” Jew ” genetically is synonymous with Israelite, but, it is not synonymous with any of The House of Israel as a distinct Nation. That name Jew is a contraction of the name Judah and it was first given to them by the Northern kingdom of the Ten Tribes when they were at war with Judah. Even if there were a few of those Northern Tribes living Judah that doesn’t constitute a kingdom. Josephus said in the first centurie, ” there were but two Tribes living in Judaea and the Ten Tribes lived beyond the river Euphrates. Ezekiel 37 contradict any notion that The House of Israel & The House of Judah are mingled in with each other . The valley of dry bones in Ezekiel is speaking of a resurrection of the House of Israel ( Ten Tribes) that have been assumed to be dead but, will be brought back and join with Judah. Rev.20. It’s a false narrative to say they are one of the same. It’s is also false statements to say Judah are the birthright people because 1Chron 5 states Joseph received it , but, Judah retain the Secptre & lawygiver.
All due respect to you Sir. This is not a criticism but, rather a correction.
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June 6, 2020 at 6:48 am
To be a “Jew” you must be a descendant from the “Tribe of Judea”. In 2 Kings 17:18, “Therefore the Lord was very angry with Israel, and removed them from His sight; there was none left but the tribe of Judea alone.” That speaks volumes.
After centuries in exile, many from other tribes converged on to Jerusalem and surrounding areas. That is why Jesus told his twelve disciples in Matthew 10:5, “Do not go into the way of the Gentiles, and do not enter a city of the Samaritans. But go rather to the “lost sheep of the house of Israel”. And as you go, preach, saying the kingdom of heaven is at hand.”
The passages in Revelation 1, regarding statements made in the Church of Smyrna and, more importantly, Philadelphia (the faithful church), are as follows:
“I will make those who are of the Synagogue of Satan, (who claim to be Jews) but are not, but lie – indeed I will make them come and worship before your feet, and to know that I have loved you”.
Of that entire passage, the thing that really threw me was the mention of the “Synagogue” of Satan” .
The only world religion worshiping in synagogues are people of the Hebrew lineage, including all 12 tribes, not just Jews. The “Jews” were only “one” of the twelve tribes.
This causes me to ask the question, “Is the ‘Nation of Israel’ truly a “Jewish” Nation? If they are truly “Jews”, wouldn’t they be calling themselves the “Nation of Judea”?
In addition, of all the tribes of “all the tribes” of the children of Israel, only 144,000, will be sealed, according to Revelation 7″4. (12,000 from each tribe.)
In 1 Chronicles, each family is identified by their family or tribe. The only family not listed is “Dan”. He’s also missing from the “all the tribes” sealed in Revelation :5-8.
Just a thought!!!
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December 2, 2021 at 4:03 am
Thanks for the comment Janice.
You say – to be a “Jew” you must be a descendant from the “Tribe of Judea”. And that the “Jews” were only “one” of the twelve tribes. This was the original meaning of the name. But later in the Bible the Hebrew word translated “Jew” is used for all the descendants of Jacob (or Israel). So it is often synonymous with “Israelite”. And today, depending on context, it can also mean one who follows the Jewish religion.
The “synagogue of Satan” in Revelation 2:9 and 3:9 describes some Jews who were enemies of the churches in Smyrna and Philadelphia because of their slander and lies. They may have been making false allegations about these churches to the Roman authorities (the government). After all, that’s what happened to Jesus! They “say they are Jews and are not” because they were physical descendants of Abraham, but were not his spiritual descendants because they lacked his faith in God.
The Bible includes 29 lists of the tribes of Israel. In no case are there more than 12 listed. Dan is not listed in Revelation 7:5-8. This may be because of its early connection with idolatry (Jud. 18:30-31; Gen. 49:17; 1 Ki. 12:28-30).
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September 3, 2022 at 12:52 pm
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“So they served him by himself, and them by themselves, and the Egyptians who ate with him by themselves, because the Egyptians could not eat bread with the Hebrews, for that is loathsome to the Egyptians.”
Genesis 43:32 NASB1995
The Egyptians didn’t consider Joseph or his family as Israelites, they consider them as Hebrews!
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April 7, 2022 at 10:58 am
Thanks for the comment Jason.
Since Jacob’s name was changed to Israel in about 1680 BC (Gen. 32:28), his descendants have been known as both Hebrews and Israelites. For example, the apostle Paul was both a Hebrew and an Israelite (2 Cor. 11:22).
A few generations after Genesis 43, the king of Egypt said, “the Israelites have become far too numerous for us” (Ex. 1:9). So these Egyptians considered the Hebrews to be Israelites.
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September 3, 2022 at 12:08 pm
Love the post; seems I’m years.late. just a comment; you seem in one of your anwsers to a post, to use “Americans” as loosely as the term “Jew” is used by virtually all. If you checked the genetic marker on many “Americans those of known “Jews” and many others because of their paternal ” Jewish” heritage; not recognized by Judeism;.probably a product of the disporia”; however to divert from God’s desending through the Father; to maternity; certaininly does a diservice to my wife who as a desendant of many generations of Bar Mitsvaed males, is ” not” Jewish”; although a Jewish dad, but a goyim mother. Who had the authority from God to change that!??
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November 5, 2022 at 9:16 pm
Thank you
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July 19, 2023 at 7:16 am